What makes you think they didn't sell those shares just to put that money in the financing? Wouldn't you sell shares at .60 if you could buy them back at .50?

The guy who wrote that is knocking West for not having done his homework (which he may be right about) but he doesn't seem to know much about anything himself. Is he unaware of the financing? Why didn't he acknowledge the possibility that these guys simply sold to put the money in the financing?

This guy doesn't even sign off on his own articles? Who writes this stuff? Does he think he's doing people a favor by providing them with information they already know about? This information is accessible to anyone through a couple clicks of a mouse...