Unless an extreme oversight by the court, is it not cusomtary to remove such jurisdiciton or state that it is no longer required if the matter was totally concluded? Would not be the first time for that to happen (oversight by the court)..but I don't think that they typically leave it open ended..the court tends to be very specific in this regard.

So..there may be a little reading of the tea leaves by negative inference here..but not out of the realm of possibilities..IMHO

If they are in fact "delusions", let us live with them in peace. If they are stated as delusions how can this be construed as pumping or giving false hope (which is not my intent..just my belief)