good points - I was trying to find some reasonable explanation as I couldn't see him selling at this point without a good reason. Maybe there is some US pension/Ivestment product that he has that is similar to the TFSA that from a financial planning perspective motivates him to do the transaction inthe USA? Could it be he is building up his wife's account so they split income in retirement or lifetime capital gains exemption limits or something like that??? - shooting in the dark to find a reason?