I have spent a good portion of my time last evening and again this morning, reading and rereading all the good posts on this forum. Although a lot of it is individuals raging against the powers, there is a lot of points that come to the surface amongst it all.
The first point I picked out was the 43% retail number. Where does this figure come from. Who determines it. Is it not a figure that the company comes up with to use in public statements (usually as an attraction to potential investors)? Also what constitutes retail and what does not? If I have an investment here in my own name it would be retail, but if I have that same investment in my company's name is it retail or commercial or what? Suppose they have a purpose being able to state that a majority of shares are other than retail? Which would tell us that any attempt such as the proxy vote would be doomed to failure.
Regards
K