I suspect the dividends are intended to remove their debentures/warrants/options (decreasing their subtle influence, and providing a ``real`` outstanding share count). When a buy back program is initiated and performed, so what if certain shareholders have a greater percentage (assuming they hold) of controlling shares. What are they controlling, after all, a proxy vote? As long as they don`t own 51% of the outstanding shares, they have zero real control IMO. So they profit from assuming a risk, just like you and I. Fine. Control? Nada.

These things I think I KNOW.

SGE