That is the point that I was trying to make. The company gets no more VALUE to leverage a M/A from a RS

I would give this example and let you decide:

A company has 100,000,000 Authorized with 90,000,000 issued and outstanding. They effect a 1-for-10 split, leaving the Authorized unchanged but reducing the issued and outstanding to 9,000,000. Given a pre-split price if $1, the company had the ability to issue stock to the value of $10,000,000, post-split the company now has 91,000,000 shares available. Even if the price drops from $10(the post-split adjusted price)to $1, the company now has stock to the value of $91,000,000 - if the price remains stable, it would be $910,000,000.

Be well