I suppose the question is "if they had no definitive knowledge of the future dollars now, they wouldn't have had that knowledge then either, so why the trading prohibition? Sorry if I'm being a bit simple here. 

They had knowledge of the settlement which was subject to the NDA, which non-insiders didn't have. Now that the 10Q has been released, any monies due under the settlement have now been accounted in the 10Q. There is a level playing field.

Be well