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Message: Re: A question for FUT...Paul

Feb 04, 2008 10:23AM

Re: A question for FUT...Paul

posted on Feb 04, 2008 06:25PM

Sorry, busy day. That time of year.

Between jumpqua(?)'s post and yours here it sound like you understand everything correctly. Once the amount is earned and determinable it is recorded in income and either payment is received or it is a receivable. Only way around that is if the "earning" part is not fully consumated or the amount is contingent on some happening in the future. Could they string it out somehow? Well, milestone has mentioned in the past that he thinks we will get "x" amount for past infringement and another "y" amount for future infringement (royalties). That's possible. And not necessarily a bad thing for obvious reasons.

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