Ron.....
posted on
Feb 19, 2007 06:18PM
At what point in this litigation can, or can't, Arm be accused of infringing the '336 (or the '148 for that matter)? Can that accusation be brought up at any point.. are we past that point now? Would this require new and separate accusation and litigation? Say J2 settle and license, leaving just Arm... could we then accuse Arm of infringing the three major patents in the MMP?
My appologies for all the questions... any light you could shed on this I would very much appreciate...
Hope the girls are... not too much of a handful! :)
Be well....