If they just bought back 5M for issuance to options, then in affect what they`ve done is taken the proceeds from revenue, bought stock, then divvyed and allocated under the category of ``options``. I guesds they did it for use, now it`s their turn to do it for themselves...
So that 5M shares are temporarily off the market until they exercise. Once they exercise, then theyre back on....
IF that`s the case, they haven`t reduced the permanent number of shares in the trading pool at all...., all they`ve done is played with the definitions to allow themselves some shares, bought with proceeds from licensing.
Someone help me clear this up...thanks
Regards