I posted these definitions because I was confused by what everything meant to me as a shareholder.

We are 51% dilutive.

The US loan will be paid off.

The Chinese have taken the preferred shares - much like a bond - to represent their input of cash. They pay an 8% cuulative annual dividend to JJNICL.

If there are future financings by Lbe the Chinese can easily convert the preferred shares to common shares to maintain the same % common shares.

This is how I understand this is supposed to be - all IMHO

1BigWilly do I have this right?