This statement in Ed's article today just adds to my confusion about the complexities of the modern stock market/casino.

"Then a not-for-profit buyer showed up...and in just over an hour, the gold price rose forty-five bucks...and by the close of electronic trading, gold was up over sixty bucks from its low at the London p.m. fix."

Do we conclude from this that the "not-for-profit buyer" was extremely upset that the gold price increased as it did? Ed implies that the price increase somehow resulted from the actions of that buyer. I am probably misinterpreting the chain of events, but the mind boggles.