Is a shareholder vote necessary in this case - i.e. is his a matter which by companies law requires be approved by the shareholders? (I have my doubts - this would be a decision made on a previously existing contract, within the company's regular course of business).

Can the company conduct a vote amongst those shareholders who own a large majority of shares only, such that they get their 50%, or 75% +1 of all o/s shares without a formal shareholders' meeting?